To Kelfer

Jon said this in one of his prior posts.

"I think that the only truthful way to deal with the theological issue at hand is to state that Christ has the hypothetical potential to be a ransom for all, but is actually a ransom for only the elect. This is regardless of any speculative ‘infinite overflow of payment’ or speculative ‘exact payment’ that occurred when God ransomed God’s elect."

Do you think that this "hypotetical potential" that you speak of is an answer for 1 John 2:2? Or do you find it to be irrelevant to this verse? Could we speak of Christ "being a ransom" in the sense that his death is sufficient to cover their sins, even if they do not come to Christ and never were intended to come to Christ?

Let me know what you think.